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Scoring questions

u_look_like_sb2010-02-16 06:11:23 +0000 #1
watch the U.S. Open, suddenly remembered a problem, why tennis score was 15-0,30-0 40-0, had never even thought about this issue, who can tell us about the historical, thank you
greattommy2010-02-16 06:17:11 +0000 #2
because the most primitive of tennis originated in the palace, and would therefore scoring local materials is understandable. They can toggle the clock to get the points, each will get a sub-clock rotation quarter, which is 15 minutes (a quarter, a moment), Similarly, the clock will have two points to 30 points, Of course, all aimed at their convenience basis. This is 15 points, 30 points in the origin.

As for the 40 points, it is more strange, it is not a multiple of 15. This is because in English, 15 min pronounced "fifteen", as the pairs of syllables, while the 30 points pronounced "thirty", is also a two-syllable;, but 45 minutes, English pronounced "forty-five", into three syllables, when the British people feel a little awkward-sounding, does not meet the "convenience" principle, then put it into a double-syllable with 40 points (forty). This is what seems illogical for the origin of 40 points.

While this scoring seems strange, but still follow the tradition still in use today, after all, we have become accustomed to this from the palace of the marking scheme.

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